Are you ready to test your knowledge about the BOEING 737?
We’ve prepared 150 smart questions for you based on feedback from our colleagues who recently completed assessments at major companies from Europe and the Middle East.
Good luck!
Systems Boeing 737 CL/NG/Max
1 / 150
1. Which is the minimum altitude at which the autopilot can be engaged after T/O?
2 / 150
2. Which is the maximum T/O and landing altitude?
3 / 150
3. Depending on the actual temperature and pressure. (Classic) Which is the maximum operating altitude?
4 / 150
4. (NG) Which is the maximum operating altitude?
5 / 150
5. Which is the maximum tank fuel temperature?
6 / 150
6. Which is the maximum fuel imbalance for all the phases of flight?
7 / 150
7. During engine start when is MaxMotoring reached?
8 / 150
8. If the Left DUCT OVERHEAT light illuminates on the B737-300/500 aircraft:
9 / 150
9. The Re-circulating Fan operates with the switch in the AUTO position except:
10 / 150
10. The cabin Altitude Warning horn will:
11 / 150
11. The AUTO FAIL light will illuminate when there is:
12 / 150
12. NG the maximum differential pressure is:
13 / 150
13. The OFF SCHED DESCENT light illuminates if:
14 / 150
14. Which A/T modes permit manual thrust changes without A/T interference?
15 / 150
15. Which flight modes will be annunciated when the autopilot is initially engaged in the CMD mode and both F/D’s are OFF?
16 / 150
16. Which of the following occurs during a single Autopilot ILS approach and the TO/GA switch is pressed for a missed approach at minimums?
17 / 150
17. Which is the minimum altitude (AGL) to engage the second A/P to execute a dual channel A/P approach?
18 / 150
18. What is indicated by a blank IAS/MACH window on the MCP while in flight?
19 / 150
19. The cockpit voice recorder uses a:
20 / 150
20. The GRD CALL switch on the Fwd. Overhead panel when pressed?
21 / 150
21. The MASK-BOOM switch allows selection of the oxygen mask microphone or the boom microphone. The MASK-BOOM switch does not affect the operation of the hand microphone?
22 / 150
22. The AC STANDBY BUS power can be supplied from:
23 / 150
23. The STANDBY PWR OFF light (amber) illuminated. What happened?
24 / 150
24. In flight, both engine generators fail, the APU generator should be connected to?
25 / 150
25. The blue GRD POWER AVAILABLE light when illuminated indicates:
26 / 150
26. NG ELEC light means:
27 / 150
27. NG the STANDBY POWER OFF light illuminates if there is no power to either:
28 / 150
28. The passenger oxygen system is activated when the cabin reaches an altitude of:
29 / 150
29. The cockpit door blow-out panels:
30 / 150
30. The NO SMOKING signs when selected to AUTO:
31 / 150
31. With the oxygen NORMAL/100% selector in the N (normal) position:
32 / 150
32. The crew oxygen Flow Indicator will:
33 / 150
33. The lavatory fire extinguisher system will automatically discharge when heat levels exceed?
34 / 150
34. With the OVHT DET switch in the B position:
35 / 150
35. Holding the TEST switch to the FAULT/ INOP position?
36 / 150
36. Pulling the engine fire switch up will closes the hydraulic fluid shutoff valve.
The engine driven hydraulic pump LOW PRESSURE light will be deactivated.
37 / 150
37. During an OVHT/FIRE test the No 1. Fire Handle light and associated overheat light do not illuminate indicating:
38 / 150
38. The power source for the Engine Fire Extinguishing system is the (NG):
39 / 150
39. The APU horn in the main wheel well can be silenced by:
40 / 150
40. Positioning the Yaw Damper switch to ON?
41 / 150
41. Loss of hydraulic system B pressure:
42 / 150
42. The LE FLAPS TRANSIT amber light on the center instrument panel:
43 / 150
43. Auto Slat operation can be monitored:
44 / 150
44. The Ground Spoilers are powered by:
45 / 150
45. The auto slat system is armed:
46 / 150
46. An alternate source of power for Auto slat operation is:
47 / 150
47. In the event of a runaway stabilizer, first:
48 / 150
48. The elevator Feel Differential Pressure light illuminated indicates that there is:
49 / 150
49. The LE FLAPS TRANSIT light will illuminate when:
50 / 150
50. In the event of total hydraulic power failure, rotation of the pilots' control wheels mechanically positions the:
51 / 150
51. In the event of jammed aileron system, rotation of the co-pilot's control wheel operates the:
52 / 150
52. Fuel Quantity indicators will display:
53 / 150
53. When the APU is inoperative and no external power is available, refueling can be accomplished as follows:
54 / 150
54. To defuel No. 1 tank:
55 / 150
55. The Fuel Temperature Indicator reads the temperature of the fuel in:
56 / 150
56. The Centre Tank Fueling Valve Position light on the External Fueling Panel is:
57 / 150
57. The External Fueling Panel is located:
58 / 150
58. Each fuel tank contains:
59 / 150
59. A digital fuel quantity indicator has an accuracy of
60 / 150
60. The fuel quantity indicators require:
61 / 150
61. If the center tank is scheduled to contain more than 453 Kgs then:
62 / 150
62. For the center tank Scavenge Jet Pump to operate:
63 / 150
63. With the Fuel LOW Alert displayed (amber) what is the fuel quantity?
64 / 150
64. The Fueling Valve Position Lights from the External Fueling Panel when illuminated blue:
65 / 150
65. A leak in the hydraulic system B engine driven pump or its associated lines would be indicated by:
66 / 150
66. If a total failure of both pumps supplying system B pressure occurs, which of the primary flight controls will be totally inoperative?
67 / 150
67. The A and B hydraulic reservoirs are pressurized by:
68 / 150
68. The standby hydraulic pump only supplies pressure to the following:
69 / 150
69. Hydraulic system A power sources are:
70 / 150
70. Pulling NO.1 Engine Fire switch will:
71 / 150
71. Minimum fuel for ground operation of electric motor-driven pumps is:
72 / 150
72. When does the RF symbol next to the quantity indicator appear?
73 / 150
73. Can you perform an Autoland approach in case of Loss of System A and B?
74 / 150
74. For pressurization and servicing, the stby System Reservoir:
75 / 150
75. How can you recognize foaming?
76 / 150
76. What is the normal precharge of Hydraulic brake pressure indicator?
77 / 150
77. What is the purpose of the Landing Gear transfer unit?
78 / 150
78. If a No.1 window outer pane cracks:
79 / 150
79. Thermal air for wing anti-icing is obtained from:
80 / 150
80. The right No.2 window heat is supplied from which circuit?
81 / 150
81. The COWL ANTI-ICE light when illuminated indicates:
82 / 150
82. The Flight Director Comparator monitors:
83 / 150
83. The underspeed symbol in the MCP Speed window is a:
84 / 150
84. What is the minimum Mach number that can be selected in the IAS/MACH display of the MCP panel?
85 / 150
85. When using manual extension to extend the landing gear, what should you do?
86 / 150
86. How should you be doing the Pushback if the nose gear lockout pin is not installed?
87 / 150
87. Rudder pedal steering is:
88 / 150
88. The autobrake system is armed:
89 / 150
89. Selecting the Nose Wheel Steering switch on the Captain's Instrument panel to ALT provides the:
90 / 150
90. After manual extension of the landing gear, the indication on the flight deck that the correct procedure has been carried out is:
91 / 150
91. Placing the Lights Est Switch to the TEST position inhibits what?
92 / 150
92. If you have a failure of one main A.C. bus, this causes:
93 / 150
93. When ARMED, the emergency exit lights will automatically be active:
94 / 150
94. The emergency exit lights and signs are powered from:
95 / 150
95. A flashing IRS ALIGN light indicates:
96 / 150
96. Selecting an IRS mode selector from OFF to ALIGN will initiate:
97 / 150
97. While in flight the right IRS DC FAIL amber light (only) illuminates indicating that:
98 / 150
98. The REF NAV DATA pages allow the crew to inhibit:
99 / 150
99. The Message UNABLE NEXT ALTITUDE means:
100 / 150
100. The Message TAI ON ABOVE 10° means:
101 / 150
101. The left IRS is normally powered by:
102 / 150
102. The right IRS in normally powered by:
103 / 150
103. When the IRS mode selector is turned OFF, how many minutes does the IRS remain powered?
104 / 150
104. Normal pressure of the flight crew oxygen system is:
105 / 150
105. The passenger oxygen mask stowage units are activated:
106 / 150
106. In each lavatory there is:
107 / 150
107. The engine bleed valves are:
108 / 150
108. The amount of fan air that is ducted through the pre-cooler is controlled by the:
109 / 150
109. Where is the water tank indicator located?
110 / 150
110. The water system is pressurized by:
111 / 150
111. The maximum aircraft altitude for APU electrical load is:
112 / 150
112. When does the APU fuel solenoid valve open?
113 / 150
113. The APU Electrical Generator and APU Oil Cooler are cooled by:
114 / 150
114. How long is the maximum APU start cycle?
115 / 150
115. The Proximity Switch Electronic Unit (PSEU) light illuminates:
116 / 150
116. EGPWS terrain display changes from dotted to solid yellow:
117 / 150
117. The weather radar automatically begins scanning for windshear when:
118 / 150
118. The PSEU light is inhibited:
119 / 150
119. If the E&E compartment external access door is left open, will the pilot have any indication in the cockpit?
120 / 150
120. The FMC Climb Phase begins at thrust reduction altitude and is terminated at which point?
121 / 150
121. Actual navigation performance represents the estimated maximum position error with percentage probability of:
122 / 150
122. If a return to land is necessary after take off, the following FMC requirement is necessary:
123 / 150
123. If the ANP exceeds the RNP value, the following message will appear on the CDU scratch pad:
124 / 150
124. The transition Altitude of the PERF INT PAGE:
125 / 150
125. What does MOD on the RTE legs page indicate?
126 / 150
126. The purpose of the Fix INFO page is to:
127 / 150
127. The FMC gets position information from:
128 / 150
128. The FMC Advisory Message Buffet ALERT indicates:
129 / 150
129. What information is available with the IRS mode selector in ATT?
130 / 150
130. LNAV automatically disconnects when:
131 / 150
131. What is the aircraft's source of attitude and heading information?
132 / 150
132. During a DUAL Channel ILS approach, at which RADIO ALTITUDE should the FLARE mode engage?
133 / 150
133. What pitch mode is annunciated after take off when the auto-pilot is first engaged in CMD?
134 / 150
134. When are the GPWS windshear warnings available?
135 / 150
135. On takeoff the configuration warning sounds. What can be the cause?
136 / 150
136. Which following systems are not monitored by the PSEU?
137 / 150
137. How can you silence the Mach/Airspeed warning inflight?
138 / 150
138. Which of the following will illuminate a landing gear configuration warning?
139 / 150
139. When GPWS provides the aural alert BANK ANGLE, BANK ANGLE the alert is silent for that bank angle until the system is reset by decreasing the bank angle to ...... degrees or less?
140 / 150
140. Which of the following is NOT a GPWS mode?
141 / 150
141. The Predictive Windshear alerts are issued:
142 / 150
142. Engine warm up recommendations for B 737 Max?
143 / 150
143. After take off how do you position the Landing Gear Lever?
144 / 150
144. What is the exhaust velocity for B Max 8/-9?
145 / 150
145. How is working the Emergency Descent Speedbrakes (EDS) new function included for MAX?
How do the Emergency Descent Speedbrakes (EDS) work? (new function included for MAX)
146 / 150
146. When the MAX REVERSE warning is enforced:
147 / 150
147. What is the Tail Radius for Boeing 737 MAX-8?
148 / 150
148. Where is Bleed Air obtained from in the Boeing 737 MAX?
149 / 150
149. (B 737 MAX) Eng-ANTI ICE light illuminates:
150 / 150
150. Starter Cutout N2 % is ...... and Normal Starter Duty Cycle is ...... for the B 737 MAX.
Please provide your name and email address so we can send you the results and your certificate.
Your score is
The average score is 40%
Restart quiz Exit